ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A caregiver is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The caregiver asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?
- A. Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
- B. Your baby needs an IV because her fontanels are bulging
- C. Your baby needs an IV because she is breathing slower than normal
- D. Your baby needs an IV because her heart rate is decreasing
Correct answer: Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears.' In infants, the inability to produce tears is a sign of severe dehydration. This is a crucial indication for the need for intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to rehydrate the infant. While the other options may also be symptoms of dehydration, the absence of tears is a more direct and specific indicator requiring immediate attention and intervention.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer the client several choices when scheduling activities.
- B. Confront the client when inappropriate behavior occurs.
- C. Use a calm, reassuring approach when speaking to the client.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in stimulating activities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
- C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
- D. Manic episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.
4. A client with diabetes is being taught by a nurse about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of calories. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. “Most of my calories each day should be from fats.”
- B. “I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else.”
- C. “Simple sugars are needed more than other calorie sources.”
- D. “Protein should be my main source of calories.”
Correct answer: “I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else.”
Rationale: The correct answer is '“I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else.”' Clients with diabetes should focus on complex carbohydrates as their primary calorie source because they have a lower impact on blood sugar levels compared to simple sugars or fats. Choice A is incorrect because a high intake of fats can lead to various health issues. Choice C is incorrect because simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as while protein is important, it should not be the main source of calories for someone with diabetes.
5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
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