Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old male quadriplegic client. Which of the following treatments would the nurse perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility?

• A. Administer glucosamine supplements
• B. Turn the client every 2 hours
• C. Provide active range of motion (ROM)
• D. Provide passive range of motion (ROM)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide passive range of motion (ROM). In quadriplegic clients, who have limited or no movement of their limbs, passive ROM exercises are crucial to maintain joint mobility and prevent joint contractures. Administering glucosamine supplements (choice A) is not directly related to promoting joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours (choice B) is essential for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address joint contracture and mobility. Providing active ROM exercises (choice C) may not be suitable for quadriplegic clients as they are unable to perform these movements on their own.

2. A client has suffered from a femur fracture. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Pain
• B. Medication history
• C. Pedal pulses
• D. Socio-economic status

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. Why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures?

• A. The client has bone spurs that lead to fractures
• B. The client has increased bone density
• C. The client has porous bones
• D. The client is not prone to fractures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is characterized by porous, weak bones due to decreased bone density. This porous nature of bones in osteoporosis makes them more prone to fractures. Choice A is incorrect because bone spurs do not lead to fractures in osteoporosis; they are bony outgrowths unrelated to osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as osteoporosis is associated with decreased, not increased, bone density. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with osteoporosis are indeed prone to fractures due to weakened bones.

4. What steps are NOT included in preparing a sterile field?

• A. Do not turn away from the sterile field
• B. Obtain PAPR mask
• C. Prepare the client before setting up the sterile field
• D. Cover the sterile field once it is set up

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. A client with a diagnosis of Human Immunodeficiency Virus develops pneumonia. What type of infection is this?

• A. An opportunistic infection
• B. A root cause infection
• C. A pathogenic infection
• D. A nosocomial infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: An opportunistic infection. In patients with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), infections like pneumonia are considered opportunistic because they take advantage of a weakened immune system. Option B, root cause infection, is incorrect as it does not describe the nature of the infection in relation to the patient's condition. Option C, pathogenic infection, is incorrect because while pneumonia is caused by pathogens, in the context of HIV, it is specifically termed as an opportunistic infection. Option D, nosocomial infection, is also incorrect as it refers to infections acquired in a healthcare setting, not related to the patient's HIV status.

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