ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would a nurse most likely observe?
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Excessive worry
- C. Hallucinations
- D. Compulsive behaviors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excessive worry is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their lives, often anticipating disaster or catastrophic outcomes. This worry is difficult to control and can be accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical of psychotic disorders, and compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, when assessing a patient with GAD, a nurse would most likely observe excessive worry.
2. What information should the nurse provide in patient education for a patient prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication.
- D. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder should be educated that it may take several weeks before experiencing the full therapeutic effects of the medication. This delay in onset of action is common with antidepressants like sertraline, and patients need to be aware of this to manage their expectations and continue with the treatment regimen. It's important for the patient to understand that consistent adherence to the prescribed dosage is crucial, even if the full effects are not immediately apparent. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding grapefruit, and regular blood tests are not specific education points related to the expected timeframe for therapeutic effects of sertraline.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
4. Which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
- A. Cognitive processing therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive processing therapy is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that has been shown to be highly effective in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). This therapy focuses on helping individuals process and make sense of their traumatic experiences, leading to symptom reduction and improved coping mechanisms. Psychoanalysis, medication management, and group therapy can be beneficial in some cases, but cognitive processing therapy is specifically tailored for addressing the symptoms and underlying causes of PTSD. Psychoanalysis may not be as effective for PTSD due to its focus on unconscious conflicts rather than trauma processing. Medication management can be useful as an adjunct to therapy but does not address the core issues of PTSD. Group therapy can provide support but may not offer the individualized approach that cognitive processing therapy provides.
5. A client prescribed sertraline for depression is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
- A. I should take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- D. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because sertraline, used for depression, typically takes several weeks to become effective. It is important for clients to understand this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue taking the medication as prescribed despite not seeing immediate results.
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