Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would a nurse most likely observe?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Excessive worry
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their lives, often anticipating disaster or catastrophic outcomes. This worry is difficult to control and can be accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical of psychotic disorders, and compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, when assessing a patient with GAD, a nurse would most likely observe excessive worry.

2. During a community education session on mental health, which statement about stigma and mental illness is correct?

• A. Stigma has no impact on treatment outcomes.
• B. Stigma can prevent individuals from seeking treatment.
• C. Stigma is only a problem in developing countries.
• D. Stigma related to mental illness is decreasing significantly worldwide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Stigma can prevent individuals from seeking treatment.' Stigma surrounding mental illness can create barriers for individuals seeking treatment. It can lead to feelings of shame, fear of judgment, and discrimination, which may deter individuals from accessing the necessary support and care they need. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stigma does have a significant impact on treatment outcomes by discouraging individuals from seeking help, it is not limited to developing countries but is a global issue, and unfortunately, stigma related to mental illness is still prevalent worldwide, although efforts are being made to reduce it.

3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. While auditing care plans for clients with eating disorders, the nurse realizes that a nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa as well as for a client with bulimia nervosa is

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Ineffective denial
• C. Chronic low self-esteem
• D. Adult failure to thrive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic low self-esteem is a nursing diagnosis that can be applicable to clients with both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. These eating disorders are often associated with distorted body image, feelings of inadequacy, and low self-esteem. Clients with these conditions may engage in harmful behaviors related to their self-image, making chronic low self-esteem a relevant nursing diagnosis for them.

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