Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

3. A nurse is performing a dressing change for a client who has a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply skin preparation to wound edges.
• B. Don sterile gloves.
• C. Normal saline
• D. Determine pain level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the pain level first. Assessing the client's pain is crucial before any procedure to ensure their comfort and safety. Applying skin preparation to wound edges (Choice A) may come later in the process after ensuring the client's comfort. Donning sterile gloves (Choice B) is important before directly handling the wound but can follow pain assessment. Normal saline (Choice C) might be used during wound cleansing but is not the initial step in this situation.

4. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

5. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Lidocaine
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.

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