Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a meal.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs.
• C. Initiate the transfusion slowly over the first 15 minutes.
• D. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor first before administering blood. This is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's identification bracelet (Choice A) is important but should come after verifying blood type. Obtaining vital signs (Choice B) and initiating the transfusion slowly (Choice C) are important steps but verifying blood type is the priority to ensure safe blood administration.

4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

5. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent blood clots.
• B. I will call my provider if I experience swelling in my hands.
• C. I should increase my calcium intake to prevent seizures.
• D. I will restrict my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

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