a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.

2. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.

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