Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL.
• B. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. WBC count of 6,500/mm3.
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.

2. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

5. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Yogurt
• C. Cream Cheese
• D. Fruit Juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.

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