Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
• C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
• D. Mild headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Eggs
• B. Carrots
• C. White bread
• D. Spinach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Passing small clots in the urine.
• B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
• C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can still have oatmeal for breakfast.
• B. I need to avoid foods that contain gluten.
• C. I can have rye toast with my eggs.
• D. I can continue to eat foods made from barley.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?

• A. Atorvastatin
• B. Digoxin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Metformin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.

Similar Questions