a nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty which of the following findings should the nurse report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take a tablet every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses.' Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are used to relieve chest pain or to prevent chest pain before activities known to cause angina. The tablets should be taken every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses, as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue until they dissolve, not taken with water. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be chewed but placed under the tongue for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

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