a nurse is assessing a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is scheduled for an arteriogram which of the following medications should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

4. A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease is a low protein diet. In liver disease, the liver may have difficulty processing protein, leading to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the body. A low protein diet helps reduce the burden on the liver and minimizes the production of these harmful substances. High protein diets can exacerbate the condition by increasing the workload on the liver. A low sodium diet (Choice C) is also important for liver disease patients as excess sodium can contribute to fluid retention and swelling, but reducing protein intake is the primary focus in these cases.

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