ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
- B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
- C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- D. The client has a productive cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.
2. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
- B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
- C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
- D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.
3. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
- B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
- C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
- D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
4. A client is 1-day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's three-chamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding.
- B. Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system.
- C. Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks.
- D. Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a three-chamber chest drainage system, the absence of bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that no suction is being applied to the chest tube. The nurse should first verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for any leaks that may be causing the lack of suction. Adding more water to the chamber or milking the chest tube are inappropriate actions and could potentially harm the client. Monitoring the client without taking action could lead to complications if the chest tube is not functioning properly.
5. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?
- A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
- B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
- C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
- D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.
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