ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Polyuria
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 68/min.
- B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Vision changes.
- D. Respiratory rate 18/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
3. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Heart rate of 68/min.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
- B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
- C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
- D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.
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