Nursing Elites

1. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Polyuria
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?

• A. Change the catheter every 24 hours
• B. Ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder
• C. Perform routine irrigation of the catheter
• D. Empty the drainage bag every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.

3. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Give oxygen therapy
• C. Obtain ECG
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

• A. Immediately give the medication
• B. Assess the reasons for refusal
• C. Document refusal
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

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