Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?

• A. Match the client's identification band with the number on the blood unit
• B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
• C. Ask the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation
• D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.

3. What is the correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Administer subcutaneously
• B. Administer intramuscularly
• C. Administer intravenously
• D. Administer orally

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes is to administer it subcutaneously. Insulin is typically injected into the fatty tissue just below the skin, allowing for a slow and consistent absorption into the bloodstream. Administering insulin intramuscularly (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates and potential complications. Administering insulin intravenously (Choice C) is only done in specific medical settings and not for routine diabetes management. Administering insulin orally (Choice D) is ineffective as the stomach acid would break down the insulin before it can be absorbed.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
• B. Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs).
• C. Place the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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