ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Bananas.
- B. Oatmeal.
- C. Brown rice.
- D. Whole milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole milk. Clients with cholecystitis should avoid high-fat foods, and whole milk contains high levels of fat. Bananas, oatmeal, and brown rice are generally considered safe for clients with cholecystitis as they are low in fat and easily digestible. Bananas are a good source of potassium, oatmeal is high in fiber, and brown rice provides complex carbohydrates. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid whole milk but can recommend the other choices as part of a balanced diet for cholecystitis.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Tracheal deviation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.
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