Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Monitor for signs of infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Tracheal deviation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a CT scan
• C. Perform a lumbar puncture
• D. Administer anticoagulants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
• B. Administer a hypotonic IV solution
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake
• D. Restrict oral fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

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