a nurse is assessing a client who has carpal tunnel syndrome the nurse should expect which of the following findings
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has carpal tunnel syndrome. The provider should expect which of the following findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phalen's sign is often positive in clients with carpal tunnel syndrome due to nerve compression. Chvostek's sign (Choice A) is related to hypocalcemia, cool extremities (Choice B) are not typically associated with carpal tunnel syndrome, and decreased radial pulse (Choice D) is not a common finding in carpal tunnel syndrome.

2. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

4. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

5. A nurse observes a colleague ignoring proper hand hygiene protocols. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to file an incident report immediately. By doing so, the nurse ensures that the unsafe practice is documented for further investigation and corrective action. Speaking to the colleague directly may not address the root cause of the issue and could lead to potential conflicts. Ignoring the situation is not an appropriate response as it compromises patient safety. Reporting the colleague to the nursing manager should be done after filing an incident report to ensure that appropriate actions are taken to prevent future occurrences of non-compliance with hand hygiene protocols.

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