a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is eff
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cataract extraction. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid lifting more than 10 lb.' After a cataract extraction, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects to prevent increased intraocular pressure, which could lead to complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A - 'Bend at the waist when picking up objects' can increase intraocular pressure; B - 'Avoid lying on the operative side' is not a specific concern related to cataract extraction; D - 'Apply ice to the affected eye' is not a standard post-cataract extraction instruction.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

4. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.

5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

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