a client is prescribed 1g potassium phosphate iv to be infused continuously over 6 hr available is 1 g in 250ml dextrose 5 what rate should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.

2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.

5. Which action by the nurse will help reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. By promoting early ambulation and leg exercises, blood flow is enhanced, reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in postoperative patients. Choice B, applying compression stockings, helps prevent VTE but is not as effective as early ambulation and exercises. Choice C, administering anticoagulants, is important in VTE prevention but does not directly address improving circulation through physical activity. Choice D, elevating the patient's legs, may be beneficial for circulation in specific cases but is not as effective in preventing VTE as early ambulation and leg exercises.

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