ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?
- A. Oral mucosa
- B. Conjunctivae
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Ear lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.
2. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?
- A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
- B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
- C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
- D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.
3. A patient prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary restrictions by a healthcare provider. Which of the following foods should the patient be instructed to limit?
- A. Bananas
- B. Spinach
- C. Potatoes
- D. Apples
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Patients taking warfarin should limit foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness and consistent dosage. Bananas, potatoes, and apples are not high in vitamin K and do not typically interfere with warfarin therapy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Elevated temperature
- B. Low blood pressure
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, decreased urine output is a crucial finding as it can indicate impaired kidney function or inadequate fluid balance. Prioritizing assessment and intervention for decreased urine output is essential to prevent complications like acute kidney injury. Elevated temperature, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate are also important, but they may not be as urgent or directly related to kidney function in a postoperative client.
5. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should expect dark tarry stools.
- B. I should expect increased bruising.
- C. I will not get as many infections.
- D. I will expect the color of my urine to be amber.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.
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