ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse at a local health department is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with listeriosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Provide the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and Prevention with the client's information
- B. Inform the client that they are required to have health department staff directly observe their treatment
- C. Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements
- D. Find out whether the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements.' Listeriosis is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are legally required to report cases to public health authorities. By checking the state requirements for reportable diseases, the nurse ensures compliance with public health regulations. Choice A is incorrect because providing the client's information to the CDC is not the immediate action needed. Choice B is incorrect as direct observation of treatment is not a standard procedure for listeriosis. Choice D is also incorrect as determining if the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood is not the primary concern when managing a diagnosed case of listeriosis.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
- D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
4. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?
- A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
- B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
- D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.
5. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?
- A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
- B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
- C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
- D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access