Nursing Elites

1. A patient on mechanical ventilation experiences a sudden drop in oxygen saturation. What should the nurse check first?

• A. Check the ventilator tubing for disconnection.
• B. Increase the patient's oxygen flow.
• C. Perform a full physical assessment.
• D. Reassess the patient's oxygen levels after 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the ventilator tubing for disconnection first when a patient on mechanical ventilation experiences a sudden drop in oxygen saturation. This is crucial because equipment malfunction, such as tubing disconnection, can lead to decreased oxygen delivery, resulting in a drop in oxygen saturation. Checking the tubing ensures that the ventilation system is functioning properly and that the patient is receiving the necessary oxygen. Option B is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow without checking for equipment issues may not address the root cause of the drop in saturation. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the immediate focus should be on assessing and ensuring the functioning of the ventilation equipment. Option D delays addressing the potential equipment malfunction, which could worsen the patient's condition if not promptly resolved.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Continue taking this medication until you feel better
• B. Take this medication with milk or food
• C. Take the medication with an antacid
• D. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the notes written by a previous shift. Which documentation reflects proper guidelines?

• A. Incomplete entries are acceptable as long as they are justified
• B. Documentation should include objective observations only
• C. Corrections in documentation should be signed and dated
• D. Entries should be modified by another healthcare professional if necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper documentation should include objective observations and detailed notes to ensure continuity of care. Choice A is incorrect because incomplete entries can lead to gaps in information and compromise patient care. Choice C is not completely accurate as corrections should be made in a manner that does not obscure the original entry but does not necessarily require a signature. Choice D is incorrect as entries should ideally be corrected by the original author to maintain accountability and accuracy.

4. What is the most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a central venous catheter (CVC)?

• A. Monitor the patient's blood pressure regularly.
• B. Change the CVC dressing every 72 hours.
• C. Flush the CVC with normal saline every shift.
• D. Avoid using the CVC for blood draws.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a central venous catheter (CVC) is to change the CVC dressing every 72 hours. This practice reduces the risk of infection and ensures the catheter remains secure. Monitoring the patient's blood pressure regularly is important but not the most crucial action when managing a CVC. Flushing the CVC with normal saline is essential but not the most important action. Avoiding using the CVC for blood draws is a good practice, but it is not the most critical nursing action in this scenario.

5. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

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