a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.

2. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

4. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

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