Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves when applying the transdermal nicotine patch to prevent the nurse from absorbing nicotine through the skin. Choice A is incorrect because shaving hairy areas of skin is not necessary for applying a transdermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch, not necessarily within 1 hour. Choice D is incorrect because the previous patch should be disposed of properly following institutional guidelines, not placed in a tissue.

2. A client is expressing concern about extreme fatigue following an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy to promote independence?

• A. Instruct the client to rest until fully recovered
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence. This approach helps the client regain confidence and autonomy in performing self-care activities. Instructing the client to rest until fully recovered (Choice A) may lead to decreased muscle strength and independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice C) does not empower the client to actively participate in their care. Involving the client's family (Choice D) may provide support but does not directly encourage the client's independence.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication before meals
• B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating during treatment
• D. Provide the client with cold beverages during meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.

4. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
• D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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