Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

2. While reviewing a client's chart, a nurse notices a discrepancy in the medication record. What should the nurse do?

• A. Correct the discrepancy and document the correction.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the discrepancy assuming it is a clerical error.
• D. Discuss the discrepancy with the client and adjust the records.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting medication discrepancies to the nurse manager is crucial to ensure patient safety and proper follow-up. The nurse manager is responsible for addressing medication errors and implementing necessary corrective actions. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the discrepancy without reporting it may lead to potential harm to the patient and violates professional standards. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the discrepancy increases the risk of medication errors going unresolved. Choice D is incorrect because discussing the discrepancy with the client before verifying the accuracy of the record can cause confusion and compromise patient safety.

3. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, a headache, and low back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer acetaminophen
• B. Stop the transfusion
• C. Slow the transfusion rate
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion (Choice B). The symptoms described - chills, headache, and low back pain - are indicative of a transfusion reaction. The priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications such as more severe reactions like hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. Administering acetaminophen (Choice A) may help with symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Slowing the transfusion rate (Choice C) may not be sufficient if a serious transfusion reaction is occurring. Administering antihistamines (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; stopping the transfusion takes precedence to ensure patient safety.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Broth
• C. Popsicle
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.

5. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the NG tube with water before each feeding.
• B. Check the placement of the NG tube before each feeding.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• D. Provide the patient with oral care every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.

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