ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for codeine for cough suppression. What is the priority instruction?
- A. Avoid driving
- B. Drink plenty of fluids
- C. Move slowly when standing up
- D. Take with food
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to 'Move slowly when standing up.' Codeine can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to dizziness or fainting. By advising the client to move slowly when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries due to sudden drops in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are important instructions as well but not the priority when considering the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Hip pallor
- B. Leg abduction
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Leg lengthening
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4
- D. 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.
4. Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?
- A. Following facility guidelines at all times
- B. Using equipment in a knowledgeable manner
- C. Communicating effectively with clients
- D. Documenting client interactions accurately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.
5. A client has bilateral eye patches following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?
- A. Explain to the client that their tray is here and place their hands on it
- B. Ask the client if they would prefer a liquid diet
- C. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client
- D. Describe to the client the location of the food on the tray
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Describing the location of food on the tray helps promote independence for the client with bilateral eye patches. By providing clear instructions on where the food is placed, the client can independently locate and consume their meal. Option A is incorrect as physically placing the client's hands on the tray does not encourage independence. Option B is unnecessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions indicated. Option C does not promote the client's independence and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
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