Nursing Elites

1. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels.
• B. Assess the patient's blood pressure regularly.
• C. Monitor the patient's heart rate every 4 hours.
• D. Check the patient's urine output hourly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.

2. The emergency department has been notified of a potential bioterrorism attack. Which action by the nurse is priority?

• A. Prepare for potential posttraumatic stress related to this bioterrorism attack.
• B. Transport patients quickly and efficiently through the elevators.
• C. Monitor for specific symptoms related to the bioterrorism attack.
• D. Manage all patients using standard precautions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a potential bioterrorism attack, the priority for the nurse is to manage all patients using standard precautions. This approach ensures the safety of both patients and healthcare providers by preventing the spread of potential bioterrorism-related illnesses. Option A is incorrect because managing patient care and safety through standard precautions takes precedence. Option B is incorrect as patient transport should also be done while adhering to infection control measures. Option C is incorrect as monitoring for specific symptoms is important but not the priority when all patients need to be managed with standard precautions.

3. Which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation?

• A. Increase the patient's fluid intake.
• B. Administer a stool softener as prescribed.
• C. Provide the patient with a high-fiber diet.
• D. Teach the patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention for managing constipation in a patient is to administer a stool softener as prescribed. Stool softeners help relieve constipation by making the stool easier to pass, especially in postoperative patients. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but may not address the underlying cause of constipation. While a high-fiber diet is important for bowel health, it may not provide immediate relief for constipation. Teaching a patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers is not recommended for managing constipation as it can lead to adverse effects like increasing intra-abdominal pressure.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?

• A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
• B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
• C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
• D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.

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