Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone) for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. Administering the beta2-agonist before the glucocorticoid helps promote bronchodilation and enhances the absorption of the glucocorticoid, maximizing its effectiveness in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol is usually taken as needed for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not necessarily at the same time each day. Choice C is incorrect as beclomethasone is a controller medication used for long-term asthma management, not for acute episodes. Choice D is incorrect as shaking the beclomethasone inhaler before use helps ensure proper medication dispersion for effective inhalation.

2. Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

• A. Anti-inflammatory
• B. Antiarrhythmic
• C. Diuretic
• D. Antifungal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure. Option A, Anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not primarily reduce inflammation. Option B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to correct heart rhythm irregularities. Option D, Antifungal, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
• B. Lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation.
• D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if having difficulty swallowing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Alendronate with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. This helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation, as the medication can cause irritation if not taken correctly. Taking it before bedtime (choice C) can increase the risk of irritation as the individual lies down. Lying down after taking the medication (choice B) can also lead to esophageal irritation. Crushing the tablet (choice D) is not recommended as Alendronate should be taken whole with a full glass of water.

4. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Losartan is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Losartan can lead to dehydration, so it is essential for the client to be vigilant for symptoms such as dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. Providing the instruction to monitor for signs of dehydration ensures the client's safety and helps in early identification of any potential issues related to dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Losartan does not interact with grapefruit juice, does not require specific instructions regarding water intake, and does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A client is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin A1c
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine. Metformin can potentially cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any adverse effects of Metformin on renal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as blood glucose, creatine kinase, and hemoglobin A1c levels are not directly monitored to assess for potential adverse effects of Metformin. Blood glucose monitoring is typically done to assess the efficacy of antidiabetic medications like Metformin, while creatine kinase levels are indicative of muscle damage and hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term blood sugar control.

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