Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is administering insulin to a patient after misreading their glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia due to the unnecessary lowering of blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves assessing the patient's blood glucose levels frequently, observing for signs and symptoms such as shakiness, confusion, sweating, and administering glucose if hypoglycemia occurs. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as insulin administration typically lowers potassium levels. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as the patient could potentially develop hypoglycemia from the excess insulin. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a potential hypoglycemic event.

2. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
• C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help alleviate the cramping by reducing the speed and pressure of the solution entering the colon. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in extreme cases but is not the initial step. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the cramping, making it less optimal than lowering the height of the solution container.

3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
• C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
• D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

4. What precaution should be advised to patients following cataract surgery?

• A. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
• B. Use warm compresses
• C. Avoid NSAIDs
• D. Avoid bright lights

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients who have undergone cataract surgery should wear dark glasses when outdoors to shield their eyes from light exposure, which can be uncomfortable or harmful during the recovery period. Using warm compresses (choice B) is not typically recommended after cataract surgery as it's more relevant for certain eye conditions. Avoiding NSAIDs (choice C) is advised to prevent bleeding complications, but it is not directly related to eye protection post-surgery. While avoiding bright lights (choice D) is crucial, wearing dark glasses provides a practical solution to achieve this, making choice A the most appropriate precaution.

5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

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