a nurse in the emergency department is assessing an older adult client who has community acquired pneumonia which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.

2. A client has a newly inserted chest drainage system with a water seal. Which of the following actions should be taken?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the collection device below the level of the client's chest ensures proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid into the patient's chest. This position allows gravity to assist in the drainage process. Clamping the tube when the client is ambulating can cause a buildup of pressure in the chest drainage system, potentially leading to complications. Carefully coiling the tubes is important to prevent obstructions and kinks that could impede the flow of drainage. Positioning the client flat may not be ideal as it could hinder proper drainage and increase the risk of leaks in the tubing.

3. When interviewing a client recently diagnosed with lung cancer and having a 60-pack-year smoking history, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a nonjudgmental attitude during the interview is crucial to create a safe environment where the client feels comfortable and open about disclosing their smoking history and other relevant information. This approach helps establish trust and facilitates an honest conversation which is essential for providing appropriate care and support to the client.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

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