ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the initial technique used when examining a client's abdomen?
- A. Palpation
- B. Auscultation
- C. Percussion
- D. Inspection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When examining a client's abdomen, the initial technique used is inspection. Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any abnormalities, such as distention, scars, or rashes. This step allows the healthcare provider to gather valuable information before proceeding to other examination techniques like palpation, auscultation, and percussion. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are secondary techniques used after visual inspection to further assess the abdomen for specific findings. Palpation involves feeling the abdomen for masses or tenderness, auscultation is listening for bowel sounds, and percussion is tapping the abdomen to assess for areas of dullness or resonance.
2. A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
- A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
- B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
- C. Ineffective individual coping with COPD.
- D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
4. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Hyperpyrexia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse finds a client's pulse rate to be above normal, it is documented as tachycardia. Tachycardia specifically refers to an elevated heart rate, while tachypnea is rapid breathing, hyperpyrexia is high fever, and arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Therefore, the correct term to describe an above-normal pulse rate is tachycardia.
5. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
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