Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

2. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Administer IV pain medication to a client who reports pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Administer oxygen to a client who has an oxygen saturation of 91%
• C. Instruct a client who is 1 hr postoperative about coughing and deep breathing exercises
• D. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride for a client who has just had abdominal surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention is administering oxygen. Postoperatively, the client's oxygen saturation should be at or above 95%. Oxygen is essential for tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. While managing pain is important, oxygenation takes precedence. Instructing a client about coughing and deep breathing exercises is important for preventing respiratory complications but is not as urgent as addressing low oxygen saturation. Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is a routine postoperative intervention for fluid balance but is not the priority when oxygen saturation is low.

3. What are the expected manifestations in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure
• C. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke is sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body. This is due to the blockage of a blood vessel by a clot, leading to a lack of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure are more commonly associated with hemorrhagic strokes. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking is often seen in ischemic strokes affecting language areas, not specifically in thrombotic strokes. Loss of sensation in the affected limb is more indicative of sensory nerve damage rather than the motor deficits seen in thrombotic strokes.

4. What does continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. Normal chest tube function
• C. A blocked chest tube
• D. Continuous drainage from the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This occurs when air is entering the system from the outside, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not a sign of normal chest tube function. Choice C is incorrect because a blocked chest tube would typically exhibit no bubbling or fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Choice D is incorrect as continuous drainage would not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

Similar Questions