ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?
- A. Flail chest
- B. Hemothorax
- C. Pulmonary contusion
- D. Pneumothorax
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.
2. A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain strict bed rest
- B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Provide a low sodium diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of Ménière's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for Ménière's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
3. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
4. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Avoid alcohol
- C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
- D. Increase exercise to reduce stress
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.
5. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Loss of motor function with nausea
- D. Severe headache and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.
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