a nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries the nurse observes the clients thorax moving inward duri
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke typically presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke, which often manifests with sudden and severe symptoms like loss of consciousness (choice B), severe headache and confusion (choice C), or loss of sensation in the affected limb (choice D). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes.

3. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

4. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

5. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

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