Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

4. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

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