ATI RN
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A
1. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?
- A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
- B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
- C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
- D. Place in a prone position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.
2. A healthcare professional assesses a client who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Loud wheezing
- B. Increased respiratory rate
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Silent chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A silent chest in a client experiencing an acute asthma attack indicates severe airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure. It is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention as it signifies a lack of airflow and ventilation. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and use of accessory muscles are common signs of an asthma attack and indicate the body's attempt to compensate. However, a silent chest suggests a dangerous lack of airflow that necessitates urgent medical attention to prevent respiratory arrest.
3. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
- A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
- B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
- C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
- D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.
4. A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Call the Rapid Response Team.
- B. Document and continue to monitor.
- C. Notify the primary care provider.
- D. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.
5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
- D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.
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