Nursing Elites

1. A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?

• A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours
• B. . Anxiety-induced hyperventilation
• C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. A nurse preparing to start an IV on a newly admitted patient teaches the patient about the procedure and begins to prepare the site. The nurse should always start by:

• A. Leaving one hand ungloved to assess the site
• B. Preparing the skin with an iodine solution
• C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine
• D. Removing excessive hair at the selected site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine, which are commonly used in IV therapy setup. This is crucial to prevent potential allergic reactions at the IV site or even life-threatening anaphylaxis. Leaving one hand ungloved (choice A) is not a recommended practice as both hands should be gloved for infection control. While preparing the skin with an iodine solution (choice B) is a step in the process, ensuring the patient's safety by checking for allergies comes first. Removing excessive hair at the selected site (choice D) is not necessary and can lead to skin irritation.

3. A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Increased PaCO2
• D. CNS disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patient's plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patient's health?

• A. Nutritional status
• B. Potassium balance
• C. Calcium balance
• D. Fluid volume status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the specific gravity in a patient with SIADH helps the nurse evaluate the patient's fluid volume status. Specific gravity indicates the concentration of solutes in the urine and can detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or excess. Nutritional status, potassium balance, and calcium balance are not directly assessed through specific gravity testing. Nutritional status is typically evaluated through dietary intake and anthropometric measurements. Potassium balance is assessed through blood tests and ECG monitoring. Calcium balance is evaluated through blood tests and bone density scans. Therefore, the correct answer is assessing fluid volume status through specific gravity testing.

5. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.

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