ATI RN
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A
1. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dysphagia
- C. Agitation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.
2. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
- B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
- C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
- D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.
3. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?
- A. A flexed position
- B. An extended position
- C. A neutral position
- D. A hyperextended position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.
4. A client is vomiting. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide the client with an emesis basin
- B. Notify housekeeping
- C. Prevent the client from aspirating
- D. Administer an antiemetic to the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is vomiting, the priority action for the nurse is to prevent the client from aspirating. Aspiration can lead to serious respiratory complications. Providing the client with an emesis basin can be helpful but preventing aspiration takes precedence. Notifying housekeeping and administering an antiemetic are secondary actions that can be addressed once the client's safety is ensured.
5. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?
- A. Wire cutters
- B. NG tube
- C. Urinary catheter tray
- D. IV infusion pump
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.
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