ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.
2. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?
- A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
- B. Intact skin behind the ears
- C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
- D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.
3. A client has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Increase the wall suction.
- B. Strip the chest tube.
- C. Clamp the chest tube.
- D. Reposition the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client with a chest tube connected to wall suction complains of chest burning, it may indicate that the tube is irritating or compressing nearby tissues. Repositioning the client can help relieve this irritation by ensuring the tube is not kinked or pulling on the tissues. Increasing suction, stripping the tube, or clamping it are not appropriate actions and could potentially worsen the situation or cause harm.
4. A client in a clinic presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?
- A. Cromolyn via a metered-dose inhaler
- B. Montelukast orally
- C. Budesonide via a dry-powder inhaler
- D. Albuterol via a jet nebulizer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the preferred medication for symptom relief is a short-acting beta-agonist like albuterol, typically delivered via a jet nebulizer for quick onset and efficacy. Cromolyn, montelukast, and budesonide are not as effective for immediate symptom relief in acute exacerbations and are more commonly used for prevention or long-term management of asthma symptoms.
5. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
- B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
- C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
- D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
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