Nursing Elites

1. A client has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptom requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Immediate intervention is required if the client exhibits tracheal deviation as it could indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Production of pink sputum may indicate bleeding but would not be as immediately life-threatening as tracheal deviation. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr could indicate hemorrhage, which also requires attention but is not as urgent as tracheal deviation. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues, including dislodgment of the tube or pneumothorax, which require intervention but are not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.

2. A client with a tracheostomy experienced a coughing spell during a meal that was being fed by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What action by the nurse takes priority?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assign a different UAP to the client.
• C. Report the UAP to the manager.
• D. Request thicker liquids for meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's lung sounds to check for signs of aspiration, which can compromise the client's oxygenation. This is crucial to ensure the client's immediate safety and respiratory status. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can then consider consulting with the registered dietitian regarding appropriate thickened liquids for future meals. Assigning a different UAP or reporting the UAP to the manager may be necessary steps but not the immediate priority in this situation.

3. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

4. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

5. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?

• A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
• B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
• C. Place the client in a private room.
• D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.

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