ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptom requires the nurse's immediate intervention?
- A. Production of pink sputum
- B. Tracheal deviation
- C. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr
- D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Immediate intervention is required if the client exhibits tracheal deviation as it could indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Production of pink sputum may indicate bleeding but would not be as immediately life-threatening as tracheal deviation. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr could indicate hemorrhage, which also requires attention but is not as urgent as tracheal deviation. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues, including dislodgment of the tube or pneumothorax, which require intervention but are not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Increased temperature
- B. Absent breath sounds
- C. Productive cough
- D. Incisional discomfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.
3. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?
- A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
- B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
- C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
- D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
- B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
- C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
- D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Dexamethasone
- C. Heparin
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario of a pulmonary embolism, the priority medication to administer is Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and the growth of existing ones, which is crucial in managing pulmonary embolism. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, and Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used for various purposes such as treating bradycardia.
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