Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

2. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

3. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

4. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

5. What instruction should be included when teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?

• A. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• B. Inhale rapidly while administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication while lying down.
• D. Hold the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth while inhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, allowing for an accurate dose with each administration. Inhaling slowly and deeply, not rapidly, helps the medication reach the lungs effectively. The medication should be administered while sitting or standing to facilitate proper lung expansion and airflow. Holding the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth can lead to medication loss; it should be placed directly in the mouth or used with a spacer to optimize delivery to the airways.

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