Nursing Elites

1. A new parent, when asked by a nurse, explains that the 4-month-old infant has been nursing regularly every 3 to 4 hours and seems satisfied. However, the parent recently introduced solid food in the form of unbuttered popcorn to the infant as a supplement. What should be the primary nursing concern in this situation?

• A. Imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirements, related to introduction of a high-calorie food
• B. Risk for aspiration related to feeding the infant an inappropriate food
• C. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to introduction of a low-nutritive food
• D. Readiness for enhanced nutrition, related to the age of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary nursing concern in this situation is the risk for aspiration. Popcorn is a choking hazard for infants, as their airway is not fully developed to handle solid foods like popcorn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the main focus should be on the immediate risk of aspiration due to the inappropriate solid food given to the infant, rather than on nutritional imbalances or readiness for enhanced nutrition.

2. Apgar scoring is conducted at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. It is used to determine:

• A. Major body systems’ responses at birth
• B. Future intelligence of the newborn
• C. Level of parent and newborn interaction
• D. Gestational age of the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score assesses a newborn's physical condition immediately after birth by evaluating heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. Therefore, the correct answer is A. The other choices are incorrect because B) the Apgar score does not predict future intelligence, C) it does not measure parent and newborn interaction, and D) it is not used to determine gestational age.

3. The Denver II is a test used to assess children. What does it evaluate?

• A. Behavior problems
• B. Developmental status
• C. Body mass index
• D. Infection likelihood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Denver II Developmental Screening Test is used to assess a child's development in four areas: personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor skills. It helps identify children who may need further evaluation. Choice A, behavior problems, is incorrect as the Denver II primarily focuses on developmental milestones rather than behavior. Choice C, body mass index, is unrelated to the assessment of child development. Choice D, infection likelihood, is also not evaluated by the Denver II test.

4. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 4 years
• B. 5 to 7 years
• C. 8 to 10 years
• D. 11 to 13 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is typically between 5 and 7 years old. This age group is most affected due to the higher incidence of streptococcal infections in school-aged children, which can lead to this renal complication.

5. The nurse is preparing a presentation on compensated, decompensated, and irreversible shock in children. What clinical manifestations related to decompensated shock should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

• A. All below
• B. Oliguria
• C. Confusion
• D. Pale extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Decompensated shock is characterized by signs such as oliguria, confusion, pale extremities, hypotension, and a thready pulse. These indicate that the body is no longer able to maintain adequate circulation to vital organs.

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