ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
- A. Complain to her fellow nurses
- B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
- C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
- D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.
2. A healthcare professional is providing information about tuberculosis to a group of clients at a local community center. Which of the following manifestations should the professional NOT include in the teaching?
- A. Persistent cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Fatigue
- D. Night sweats
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weight gain is not a typical manifestation of tuberculosis. The characteristic symptoms of tuberculosis include a persistent cough, fatigue, and night sweats. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a common symptom associated with tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism. Therefore, the healthcare professional should exclude weight gain from the teaching on tuberculosis manifestations.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
4. A healthcare provider is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Instill 500 ml of solution through the NG tube.
- B. Insert a large-bore NG tube.
- C. Use a cold irrigation solution.
- D. Instruct the client to lie on their right side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a gastric lavage procedure for upper gastrointestinal bleeding, inserting a large-bore NG tube is essential to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. This tube allows for efficient irrigation and suction, aiding in the removal of harmful substances from the stomach. Instilling a large volume of solution or using a cold irrigation solution can lead to complications such as fluid overload or hypothermia. Instructing the client to lie on their right side is not directly related to the gastric lavage procedure.
5. What is the appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection?
- A. 20G
- B. 22G
- C. 25G
- D. 26G
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intradermal injections require a very fine needle to be used to deliver the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. A 26G needle is typically used for intradermal injections as it is thin enough to penetrate the skin's surface and deposit the medication accurately.
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