Nursing Elites

1. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to

• A. sexual arousal.
• B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
• C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
• D. decreased cortisol levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.

2. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• C. Hemorrhagic stroke
• D. Renal insufficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

4. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

5. What are the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries?

• A. Hypoextension, expansion, hyperflexion
• B. Hyperflexion, expansion, hypometabolism
• C. Hypermetabolism, compression, hyperextension
• D. Hyperextension, hyperflexion, compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spinal cord injuries commonly occur due to hyperextension, hyperflexion, and compression. Hyperextension and hyperflexion refer to the excessive bending or stretching of the spinal cord, while compression is the exertion of pressure on the spinal cord. These mechanisms can lead to damage such as contusions, lacerations, and compression of the spinal cord. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries.

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