ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?
- A. Rubella
- B. Pertussis
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.
2. A patient is on contact precautions for an infection. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Wear gloves when entering the patient's room.
- B. Place the patient in a private room.
- C. Use a dedicated blood pressure cuff for the patient.
- D. Dispose of all equipment in a biohazard bag.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a patient on contact precautions is to wear gloves when entering the patient's room. This is crucial in preventing the spread of infection from the patient to the healthcare provider and vice versa. Placing the patient in a private room may be necessary for airborne precautions but is not specifically related to contact precautions. Using a dedicated blood pressure cuff for the patient is important for preventing cross-contamination but is not the most critical action. Disposing of equipment in a biohazard bag is a standard procedure but is not the most important action in this scenario.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is being admitted from the PACU following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Urinary output
- B. Pain level
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Abdominal dressing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation. Following abdominal surgery, the priority assessment is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial as the client may be at risk of respiratory complications due to the effects of anesthesia, pain medications, and the surgical procedure itself. Assessing urinary output is important for monitoring kidney function but is not the priority immediately postoperatively. Pain level assessment is essential for the client's comfort but does not take precedence over ensuring oxygen saturation. Checking the abdominal dressing is important for wound assessment, but ensuring adequate oxygenation is the priority in the immediate postoperative period.
4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching for a client who has a burn injury and adheres to a vegan diet. The healthcare provider should recommend which of the following foods as the best source of protein to promote wound healing?
- A. One cup of brown rice
- B. One cup of pureed avocado
- C. One cup of lentils
- D. One cup of orange juice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lentils are an excellent source of protein, suitable for a vegan diet, and promote wound healing. Brown rice (Choice A) is a carbohydrate-rich food and lacks sufficient protein for wound healing. Pureed avocado (Choice B) is a healthy fat source but low in protein. Orange juice (Choice D) is a source of vitamin C but lacks protein needed for wound healing.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
- B. Administer furosemide to the client
- C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
- D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access