ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?
- A. Rubella
- B. Pertussis
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.
2. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before each feeding.
- B. Check the placement of the NG tube before each feeding.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- D. Provide the patient with oral care every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.
3. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Check for orthostatic hypotension
- B. Use a gait belt
- C. Position the chair on the strong side
- D. Ask for assistance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take is to check for orthostatic hypotension. This step is crucial as it ensures the client's safety during the transfer process. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that can occur when a person moves from a lying down position to a sitting or standing position. By checking for orthostatic hypotension before transferring the client, the nurse can prevent potential complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario as they do not address the immediate safety concern of assessing for orthostatic hypotension.
4. A client reports severe pain unrelieved by pain medication in a limb with traction. What is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increase the dosage of pain medication.
- B. Assess for compartment syndrome.
- C. Wait for the healthcare provider to address the issue.
- D. Reposition the client to alleviate the pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for compartment syndrome. Severe unrelieved pain in a limb with traction can be a sign of compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency. Prompt assessment is crucial to prevent potential complications. Increasing pain medication dosage without addressing the underlying cause may delay necessary interventions. Waiting for the healthcare provider may lead to a critical delay in treatment. Repositioning the client may not alleviate the pain if it is due to compartment syndrome, and it is crucial to assess for this condition first.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
- B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
- C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
- D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access