a nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient what will the nurse do
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.

2. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.

3. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

4. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.

5. A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for 'scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night.' Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Pinworms. Pinworms are a common cause of itching around the anal area, especially at night, in young children. Scratching the bottom and bedwetting can be indicative of a pinworm infection. Allergies (Choice A) are less likely given the symptoms described. Scabies (Choice B) may cause itching but is less common in causing bedwetting. Regression (Choice C) is not a common cause of these specific symptoms in a 3-year-old child.

Similar Questions

A postoperative client is reporting pain at a level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. What is an indication that the client understands pain management?
A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses