ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.
3. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should the instructor include in the teaching? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Progressive muscle relaxation
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Cognitive restructuring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than a specific relaxation technique. Therefore, cognitive restructuring does not fall under the category of relaxation techniques and is not typically used to manage anxiety.
4. When a patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed escitalopram, what potential side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insomnia. Escitalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly causes insomnia as a side effect. Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep when starting this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and hypertension are not typically associated with escitalopram use.
5. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Citalopram
- C. Paroxetine
- D. Escitalopram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.
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