Nursing Elites

1. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
• B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
• C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
• D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

2. Which of the following statements should a healthcare professional recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select the one that doesn't apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego in the face of threats to biological and psychological integrity to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They act as protective devices for the ego, not the id or superego. The id represents primal instincts, while the superego is associated with moral standards. Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with stressors by redirecting focus and are often unconscious and self-deceptive.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to engage in social activities.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• D. Encourage the client to set realistic goals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.

4. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would a nurse most likely observe?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Excessive worry
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their lives, often anticipating disaster or catastrophic outcomes. This worry is difficult to control and can be accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical of psychotic disorders, and compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, when assessing a patient with GAD, a nurse would most likely observe excessive worry.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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