Nursing Elites

1. A client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order has requested resuscitation during a family visit. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Follow the client's wishes and start resuscitation.
• B. Explain that the DNR must be honored.
• C. Ignore the client's request.
• D. Consult with the family regarding the decision.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nurses have a legal and ethical obligation to honor a client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, regardless of any request for resuscitation during a family visit. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that the DNR order must be respected. Choice A is incorrect because starting resuscitation against the client's documented wishes goes against the principle of autonomy. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and legal directives. Choice D is not the best option as the nurse should prioritize honoring the client's decision as per the DNR order.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• B. Hyoscyamine
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Phenazopyridine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

4. A patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) requires treatment. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake.
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
• C. Recommend the patient take over-the-counter pain relievers.
• D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antibiotics as prescribed. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for urinary tract infections as they help eliminate the bacteria causing the infection. Encouraging the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is a supportive measure to help flush out the bacteria but doesn't directly treat the infection. Over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) may help with discomfort but do not address the underlying infection. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may be recommended for some conditions but is not the primary intervention for treating a UTI.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
• D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

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