Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

2. A nurse is evaluating a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following lab values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9 mg/dL
• D. Chloride 98 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Potassium levels above 5.0 mEq/L can lead to cardiac issues, and a level of 6.5 mEq/L requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in the context of hemodialysis monitoring.

3. A nurse is providing home care for a client who is receiving tube feedings and medication through a gastrostomy tube. The family member providing the feedings reports that the client has begun to have diarrhea. For which of the following practices should the nurse intervene?

• A. Cleanse the bag every 24 hours
• B. Cleanse the bag every 48 hours
• C. Use tap water
• D. Flush the tube every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cleansing the bag every 24 hours can lead to contamination, increasing the risk of infection and diarrhea. Using tap water (choice C) is not recommended for cleaning the gastrostomy tube due to the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Cleansing the bag every 48 hours (choice B) is not frequent enough and may also contribute to infection. Flushing the tube every 4 hours (choice D) is a standard practice to ensure patency and should not be intervened by the nurse.

4. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should expect dark tarry stools.
• B. I should expect increased bruising.
• C. I will not get as many infections.
• D. I will expect the color of my urine to be amber.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of morphine to a patient with terminal cancer. What is the nurse's primary consideration before administration?

• A. Ensure the family is aware of the dosage to be administered.
• B. Monitor the patient for respiratory depression.
• C. Administer the morphine in divided doses.
• D. Delay administration until the next assessment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the patient for respiratory depression. When administering a high dose of morphine, the nurse's primary consideration should be to monitor the patient for respiratory depression, as morphine can slow down breathing, especially in higher doses. Option A is incorrect because the primary focus should be on the patient's well-being and safety rather than family awareness at this point. Option C is not the best approach as the immediate concern is monitoring the patient closely for any adverse effects. Option D is not advisable as delaying administration without a valid reason can compromise pain management in a terminal cancer patient.

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