a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg iv available is furosemide 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse administer per dose
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

2. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of clients. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because testicles should be uniform in consistency when performing a self-exam, and any lumps or abnormalities should be reported. Choice A is incorrect as testicular self-examinations should be performed monthly, not weekly. Choice B is incorrect because the epididymis should be included in the examination. Choice D is incorrect because a warm shower helps relax the scrotum, making the exam easier to perform.

3. A nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient. What will the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale to identify patients at high risk for impaired skin integrity. This tool helps in early identification and appropriate intervention. Choice B, limiting fluid intake, is not directly related to skin assessment. Choice C, having special times for inspection, may not ensure timely identification of skin issues. Choice D, assessing the skin every 4 hours, lacks specificity regarding the use of a validated tool for risk assessment.

4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a new tracheostomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy as needed to maintain a patent airway. After a tracheostomy procedure, the immediate concern is airway patency to prevent respiratory compromise. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintains a clear airway, reducing the risk of respiratory distress. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but not the priority compared to ensuring a clear airway. Providing humidified air (choice C) and administering pain medication (choice D) are also essential aspects of care for a patient with a tracheostomy, but they are not the priority when immediate airway management is required.

5. A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had a stroke about manifestations of dysphagia. Which of the following statements by the client's partner indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tilting the head forward during swallowing is not a compensatory technique for dysphagia and may increase the risk of aspiration. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements indicating appropriate monitoring for manifestations of dysphagia: coughing while eating, pocketing food in the mouth, and changes in voice after swallowing are all signs that should be monitored.

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