a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg iv available is furosemide 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse administer per dose
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cataract extraction. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid lifting more than 10 lb.' After a cataract extraction, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects to prevent increased intraocular pressure, which could lead to complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A - 'Bend at the waist when picking up objects' can increase intraocular pressure; B - 'Avoid lying on the operative side' is not a specific concern related to cataract extraction; D - 'Apply ice to the affected eye' is not a standard post-cataract extraction instruction.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing how a patient's pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate assessment question in this scenario is asking the patient, 'What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?' This question helps the healthcare provider understand how pain is impacting the patient's daily activities and mobility, providing valuable insight into the limitations caused by the pain. Choice B focuses on pain medication effectiveness, which is not directly related to mobility assessment. Choice C aims at pain intensity assessment but does not directly address mobility issues. Choice D suggests a solution rather than gathering information about the current impact of pain on mobility.

4. Which intervention is most effective in managing a patient with chronic pain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with chronic pain is teaching the patient relaxation techniques. Relaxation techniques can help reduce stress, decrease muscle tension, and improve pain management in patients with chronic pain. Administering opioids as prescribed may have risks of dependence and side effects, making it less favorable as a first-line intervention. Encouraging range of motion exercises can be beneficial, but relaxation techniques directly target stress reduction, a common exacerbating factor in chronic pain. Recommending complete bed rest is generally discouraged in chronic pain management as it can lead to deconditioning and worsen pain over time.

5. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.

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