Nursing Elites

1. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.

2. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

• A. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
• B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
• C. Assessing the client’s vital signs every 4 hours
• D. Checking the client’s lungs for crackles during every shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

• A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
• B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
• C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
• D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.

4. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

5. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

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