Nursing Elites

1. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.

2. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are set up when threats to air resources make it impossible to evacuate by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred from ambulances to aircraft for further evacuation. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) are not directly related to this scenario, as they provide medical support to larger areas. TOE units (Choice B) refer to tables of organization and equipment, not specific to this situation. Field hospitals (Choice D) are more permanent facilities for treating patients and are not specifically for transferring patients under threats to air resources.

3. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.

• A. Follows a vegan diet
• B. Smokes cigarettes
• C. Follows a ketogenic diet
• D. Is lactose intolerant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to higher levels of oxidative stress in the body, which in turn increases the utilization of vitamin C to counteract the damage caused by free radicals. Choices A, C, and D do not directly impact the body's need for vitamin C as smoking does.

4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Accountability in personnel management involves being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which includes listening to and addressing the suggestions and complaints of soldiers. This category focuses on the responsibility and answerability aspect of the nurse manager's role. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because personal/professional development is about growth and improvement, individual training pertains to specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to the physical presentation and fitness levels, none of which directly address the task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.

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