a client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics the nurse should take which b
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.

2. Under what circumstances can personal health information be disclosed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed under specific circumstances such as compliance with legal proceedings, for research purposes in limited situations, and to a family member or significant other in emergencies. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because it encompasses all the situations where disclosure of personal health information is permissible. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual scenarios where disclosure can occur, but the comprehensive answer is that personal health information can be disclosed in all these situations, not just one or two.

3. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

4. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant amounts of heme iron or other iron-rich foods that would be beneficial in managing iron deficiency anemia. Cheese pizza, scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast, corn flakes, and whole wheat toast do not provide the necessary heme iron needed to address the client's condition.

5. After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first priority in this situation is to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. This involves removing any potential means of self-harm and closely monitoring the client to prevent further attempts. While establishing rapport and communication are important, safety is paramount at this critical juncture. Placing the client in full restraints should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for immediate safety concerns.

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