a client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy which of the following measures would most likely be included in th
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Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in the plan for the client's preoperative preparation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotics are administered preoperatively to reduce the bacterial count in the colon. The client will be placed on a low residue diet to help cleanse the bowel before surgery but typically is not placed on NPO status until 8 to 12 hours before surgery. Laxatives and enemas may also be administered. Chest tubes would not be expected postoperatively. There is no need to limit the client's activity before surgery.

2. A client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin. The nurse provides care, anticipating that this client is most at risk of

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombin is produced by the liver and is necessary for normal clotting. When a client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin, they are at risk of bleeding due to impaired clotting mechanisms. Dehydration (choice A) is not directly related to low thrombin levels. Malnutrition (choice B) may impact overall health but is not the most immediate concern associated with low thrombin levels. Infection (choice D) is not directly related to the clotting function affected by low thrombin levels.

3. The nurse evaluates the client’s stoma during the initial post-op period. Which of the following observations should be reported immediately to the physician?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A dark red to purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow or ischemia, which requires immediate medical attention. This color change could be a sign of inadequate blood supply to the stoma tissue, leading to tissue damage or necrosis. Reporting this observation promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of immediate medical concern. A slightly edematous stoma, oozing a small amount of blood, or not expelling stool may not be uncommon findings during the initial post-op period and can be managed without urgent intervention.

4. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

5. A nurse is assigned to a 40-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 IU/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the rise in serum amylase levels usually does not exceed three times the normal value. In acute pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the normal value. Options 1 and 2 are within normal limits. Option 3 is an extremely elevated level seen in acute pancreatitis.

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