which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Gastrointestinal System Quizlet

1. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fecal occult blood test should be performed annually for individuals over age 50 to screen for colon cancer.

2. The client with Crohn’s disease has a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain. The nurse would teach the client to avoid which of the following in managing this problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing acute pain associated with Crohn’s disease, the client should avoid lying supine with the legs straight. This position increases muscle tension in the abdomen, potentially aggravating inflamed intestinal tissues as the abdominal muscles are stretched. Massaging the abdomen, using antispasmodic medication, and employing relaxation techniques are beneficial in alleviating pain. Massaging can help relax abdominal muscles, antispasmodic medication can reduce spasms contributing to pain, and relaxation techniques aid in overall pain management. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for managing pain in clients with CroCrohn’s disease.

3. A client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin. The nurse provides care, anticipating that this client is most at risk of

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombin is produced by the liver and is necessary for normal clotting. When a client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin, they are at risk of bleeding due to impaired clotting mechanisms. Dehydration (choice A) is not directly related to low thrombin levels. Malnutrition (choice B) may impact overall health but is not the most immediate concern associated with low thrombin levels. Infection (choice D) is not directly related to the clotting function affected by low thrombin levels.

4. If a gastric acid perforates, which of the following actions should not be included in the immediate management of the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antacid administration should not be included in the immediate management of a gastric perforation.

5. The nurse is caring for a client following a Billroth II procedure. On review of the postoperative orders, which of the following if prescribed, should the nurse question and verify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Billroth II procedure the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically ordered by the physician. In this situation the nurse should clarify the order. Coughing and deep breathing exercises, leg exercises, and early ambulation are appropriate postoperative interventions.

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