ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?
- A. Managing patients' legal affairs
- B. Managing the hypothalamus: The hypothalamus is a small area in the brain located just below the thalamus. It plays a crucial role in controlling various bodily functions, including temperature regulation, hunger, and thirst, sleep-wake cycles, and hormone regulation. The hypothalamus is also involved in the control of the autonomic nervous system and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
- C. Managing work center operations
- D. Managing personnel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Managing patients' legal affairs is not a basic area of concern in practical nurse management responsibilities. The primary areas typically include managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Choice B, managing the hypothalamus, is irrelevant to nurse management responsibilities and is not a standard area of concern in this context. Choice C, managing work center operations, and Choice D, managing personnel, align more closely with the core responsibilities and concerns of practical nurse management roles.
3. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?
- A. Command and control procedures
- B. Computers and data processing
- C. Common soldier tasks
- D. Communications and automation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the context of field medical training for mobilization, proficiency in common soldier tasks is essential. This includes skills like first aid, navigation, marksmanship, and other fundamental military tasks. While command and control procedures, communications, and automation are important, common soldier tasks are specifically mentioned in the scenario as critical for achieving readiness and mobilization.
4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.
5. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
- B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
- C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
- D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis, requiring immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, though important, does not indicate an immediate need for assessment. Option B, a client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom, does not present with urgent signs or symptoms requiring immediate assessment. Option D, a client with arterial occlusive disease and a decreased pedal pulse, needs attention but is not the priority compared to a hypertensive crisis with epistaxis and headache.
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