Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted to the emergency room and is found to have proteinuria, a low serum albumin level, edema, and elevated blood lipids. Which condition do these symptoms typically associate with?

• A. Nephrotic syndrome
• B. Acute kidney injury
• C. Rejection of a kidney transplant
• D. Renal colic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (excess protein in urine), hypoalbuminemia (low serum albumin), edema (swelling due to fluid buildup), and hyperlipidemia (elevated blood lipids). These symptoms occur as a result of damage to the kidneys' filtering units. Acute kidney injury, rejection of a kidney transplant, and renal colic do not present with the same combination of symptoms as nephrotic syndrome. Acute kidney injury typically presents with a sudden decrease in kidney function, resulting in a build-up of waste products in the blood. Rejection of a kidney transplant may present with fever, pain at the transplant site, and changes in urine output. Renal colic usually presents with intense pain in the lower back or side, related to kidney stones.

2. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

• A. ECG
• B. General Anesthesia
• C. EEG
• D. MRI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

3. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?

• A. severity of illness
• B. presence of pressure sores
• C. localized edema
• D. generalized weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.

4. Causes of acute renal failure include:

• A. chronic renal failure
• B. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
• C. recurrent urinary tract infections
• D. severe injury such as extensive burns

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Severe injuries, like extensive burns, can cause acute renal failure due to shock, reduced blood flow to the kidneys, and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chronic renal failure, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and recurrent urinary tract infections are more likely to contribute to chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

5. Which hormone is produced in fat tissue and helps regulate body fat by suppressing appetite?

• A. glucagon
• B. ghrelin
• C. leptin
• D. insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, leptin. Leptin is a hormone produced by fat cells that helps regulate energy balance by suppressing hunger, thus aiding in the regulation of body fat. Glucagon (choice A) is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels, ghrelin (choice B) stimulates appetite, and insulin (choice D) regulates blood sugar levels and promotes glucose uptake.

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