Nursing Elites

1. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

• A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
• B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
• C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
• D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

3. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?

• A. Increase the I.V. infusion rate.
• B. Use diversion activities.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Give ice chips every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing frequent mouth care is the priority for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and complaining of thirst.

4. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect to note if the client indeed has appendicitis?

• A. Leukopenia with a shift to the right
• B. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right
• C. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left
• D. Leukopenia with a shift to the left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but often moderate elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) to 10,000 to 18,000 cells/mm3 occurs with a “shift to the left” (an increased number of immature white blood cells.).

5. When assessing the client with celiac disease, the nurse can expect to find which of the following?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Jaundiced sclerae
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Widened pulse pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Because celiac disease destroys the absorbing surface of the intestine, fat isn't absorbed but is passed in the stool. Steatorrhea is bulky, fatty stools that have a foul odor. Jaundiced sclerae result from elevated bilirubin levels. Clay-colored stools are seen with biliary disease when bile flow is blocked. Celiac disease doesn't cause a widened pulse pressure.

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