Nursing Elites

1. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

• A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
• B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
• C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
• D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.

2. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

• A. Explain that high-fat diets usually are tolerated better.
• B. Encourage intake of foods high in protein.
• C. Explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.
• D. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explaining to the client that the majority of calories should be eaten in the morning hours is important because nausea occurs most often in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are tolerated better.

3. A nurse is assigned to a 40-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of

• A. 45 units/L
• B. 100 units/L
• C. 300 units/L
• D. 500 units/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 IU/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the rise in serum amylase levels usually does not exceed three times the normal value. In acute pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the normal value. Options 1 and 2 are within normal limits. Option 3 is an extremely elevated level seen in acute pancreatitis.

4. When teaching a community group about measures to prevent colon cancer, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Limit fat intake to 20% to 25% of your total daily calories.
• B. Include 15 to 20 grams of fiber into your daily diet.
• C. Get an annual rectal examination after age 35.
• D. Undergo sigmoidoscopy annually after age 50.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fat intake is a recommended measure to reduce the risk of colon cancer. Including fiber, undergoing annual rectal examinations, and sigmoidoscopy are also important, but limiting fat intake is directly related to reducing cancer risk.

5. A Penrose drain is in place on the first postoperative day following a cholecystectomy. Serosanguineous drainage is noted on the dressing covering the drain. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Notify the physician.
• B. Change the dressing.
• C. Circle the amount on the dressing with a pen.
• D. Continue to monitor the drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage with a small amount of bile is expected from the Penrose drain for the first 24 hours. Drainage then decreases, and the drain is removed usually within 48 hours. The nurse does not need to notify the physician. A sterile dressing covers the site and should be changed to prevent infection and skin excoriation.

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