ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:
- A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
- B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
- C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
- D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.
2. What should be recommended to help prevent early childhood caries (ECC) in infants?
- A. Avoid giving the infant nighttime bottles
- B. Have the infant drink pasteurized skim milk
- C. Feed the infant iron-rich foods
- D. Give the infant fruit juice to drink
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Avoid giving the infant nighttime bottles' because prolonged exposure to sugars in milk during the night can lead to caries. Options 'B: Have the infant drink pasteurized skim milk' and 'D: Give the infant fruit juice to drink' are not recommended as they contain sugars that can cause cavities, especially in infants. Option 'C: Feed the infant iron-rich foods' is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, iron-rich foods do not directly prevent caries development.
3. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?
- A. Bloody urine
- B. One void since returning from surgery
- C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
- D. Double diapering from the previous shift
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.
4. From where do these originate, behind the cusps of the aortic valve, in an area known as Valsalva’s sinus?
- A. Pulmonary valve
- B. Aortic valve
- C. Tricuspid valve
- D. Mitral valve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Aortic valve. The aortic valve is a semilunar valve located between the left ventricle and the aorta. It prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle. The pulmonary valve (choice A) is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, not in the Valsalva’s sinus area. The tricuspid valve (choice C) is situated between the right atrium and right ventricle, and the mitral valve (choice D) is located between the left atrium and left ventricle, making them incorrect choices for this question.
5. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?
- A. myasthenia gravis
- B. achalasia
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. cerebral palsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.
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