Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

2. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

• A. A fecalith
• B. Bowel kinking
• C. Internal bowel occlusion
• D. Abdominal bowel swelling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fecalith is a hardened stool that can block the appendix, leading to inflammation and infection, which is the most common cause of appendicitis.

3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy. Which measure will the nurse instruct the client to follow to assist in preventing dumping syndrome?

• A. Eat high-carbohydrate foods
• B. Limit the fluids taken with meals
• C. Ambulate following a meal
• D. Sit in a high-Fowlers position during meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent dumping syndrome after a gastrectomy, it is recommended to limit fluids taken with meals to slow down gastric emptying and reduce the symptoms.

4. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

5. The client with cirrhosis has ascites and excess fluid volume. Which measure will the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

• A. Increase the amount of sodium in the diet.
• B. Limit the amount of fluids consumed.
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation.
• D. Administer magnesium antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excess fluid volume, related to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal and dependent areas of the body, can occur in the client with cirrhosis. Fluids should be restricted, including fluids given in medications and meals. Sodium restriction also aids in reducing fluid volume excess.

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