Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

2. The home care nurse is visiting a client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia that developed as a result of gastric surgery. The nurse instructs the client that because the stomach lining produces a decreased amount of intrinsic factor in this disorder, the client will need

• A. Vitamin B12 injections
• B. Vitamin B6 injections
• C. An antibiotic
• D. An antacid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 occurs in pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of red blood cells. Vitamin B6 is not necessarily needed for pernicious anemia and can be taken orally. An antibiotic and antacids may be prescribed for certain types of gastric ulcers.

3. You promote hemodynamic stability in a patient with upper GI bleeding by:

• A. Encouraging oral fluid intake.
• B. Monitoring central venous pressure.
• C. Monitoring laboratory test results and vital signs.
• D. Giving blood, electrolyte and fluid replacement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Promoting hemodynamic stability in a patient with upper GI bleeding involves giving blood, electrolyte, and fluid replacement.

4. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that

• A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
• B. This is a normal, expected event.
• C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
• D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.

5. The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders written for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which physician order would the nurse question if noted on the client’s chart?

• A. NPO status
• B. Insert a nasogastric tube
• C. An anticholinergic medication
• D. Morphine for pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine for pain should be questioned as it can cause spasms of the sphincter of Oddi, worsening pancreatitis.

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