Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

2. Annebell is being discharged with a colostomy, and you’re teaching her about colostomy care. Which statement correctly describes a healthy stoma?

• A. At first, the stoma may bleed slightly when touched.
• B. The stoma should appear dark and have a bluish hue.
• C. A burning sensation under the stoma faceplate is normal.
• D. The stoma should remain swollen away from the abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A healthy stoma may bleed slightly when touched initially, which is normal.

3. Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated with appendicitis?

• A. Aching
• B. Fleeting
• C. Intermittent
• D. Steady

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Steady. The pain associated with appendicitis is typically constant and steady, especially in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. It is not described as aching (choice A) because it is more persistent and severe than a dull ache. It is not fleeting (choice B) as appendicitis pain tends to worsen over time. It is also not intermittent (choice C) as the pain is continuous and does not come and go.

4. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis?

• A. Cholelithiasis
• B. Gastritis
• C. Perforated ulcer
• D. Incarcerated hernia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A perforated ulcer is most likely to directly cause peritonitis due to the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

5. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a hallmark sign of this disorder?

• A. Severe abdominal pain relieved by vomiting
• B. Severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis is severe abdominal pain that is not relieved by vomiting. Nausea and vomiting are common presenting symptoms, with vomitus typically consisting of gastric and duodenal contents. Hypothermia is not a hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis. Fever, typically less than 38 degrees centigrade, is more common. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area is not a characteristic sign of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

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