Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

2. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:

• A. For long-term maintenance therapy.
• B. As a first-line treatment.
• C. For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.
• D. To treat depression symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.

5. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Perfectionism
• B. Flexibility
• C. Generosity
• D. Spontaneity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.

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